3rdnlng Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 1. For the last time, the level of risk is completely independent of the size of the investment or the investor's relative wealth. Whether you have $1 billion in the bank or $100 in the bank, one share of stock A presents the same level of risk. ONLY your ability to accept risk, not to be confused with your willingness to accept risk, is affected by your wealth. By your logic, the weight of a 5lb box is relative to an individual's size and strength. 2. NO loans are risk free. The outcome does not change the uncertain nature of repayment of capital and interest. 3. So I pay the bank interest on my loan because they worked for the money they're lending? So my floating interest rate moves depending on how hard they worked, right? But why does my rate change if they've already performed the work? And what does a credit history have to do with lending? I guess people with poor credit must just seek out loans from lenders who worked extra hard for the money? That is the most profoundly ignorant statement you've made yet. Interest is a reflection of credit risk. Any statement to the contrary is entirely false. 4. There is no such thing as indefinite interest, only indefinite capital gains. Again, you blend investment concepts and principles with lending principles, one of the many sources of your tragic misunderstandings of our financial system. Investment and lending may be the same to you, but that's only because you're an idiot. 5. That is not a sentence and no meaning can be derived from the that collection of words. Hows the marginal productivity argument working out for you? He's deliberately confusing the amount of risk to the consequences of the risk. Losing $5 when you have $10 is no more risky than if you have a million, but the consequences are much more for the guy with $10. Regardless, don't you guys feel at least a little dirty after a so called conversation with him? He's polluting the board with his nonsense in every thread. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jauronimo Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 (edited) He's deliberately confusing the amount of risk to the consequences of the risk. Losing $5 when you have $10 is no more risky than if you have a million, but the consequences are much more for the guy with $10. Regardless, don't you guys feel at least a little dirty after a so called conversation with him? He's polluting the board with his nonsense in every thread. I need an interpreter to decipher his last reply to me. The only thing I was able to discern from his latest rambling was constant backtracking and claims that he never said, what he in fact explicitly said many, many times. And what kind of grown man uses emoticons? Edited May 30, 2012 by Jauronimo Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DC Tom Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 when my surplus value produced surpasses capital and interest, i dont owe you any more money, otherwise, its unpaid labor. ie indefinite interest. so, ....... when you give me 100$ and charge me 110 for interest, once my loan is paid off, im done with you. raw materials are worth 100$. the market value through labor adds to this. this is what a wage is. so say the raw materials are worth, 100$, and the final end product is worth 200$. this means labor should get say 80$. minus 20 for new overhead cost. but this leaves the owner of capital with no profit on his original loan of 100$. this is where interest or profit comes in. so the owner only pays labor 40$. this is legit and fine, but cant go on forever, otherwise surplus value will overtake the original cost of capital. ie a reward for doing nothing. its indefinite interest if capital is not treated like regular loans. its exploitation. you call it capital gains, i call it indefinite interest. they are the same thing... its a free ride! But that makes NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARCELL DAREUS POWER Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 He's deliberately confusing the amount of risk to the consequences of the risk. Losing $5 when you have $10 is no more risky than if you have a million, but the consequences are much more for the guy with $10. Regardless, don't you guys feel at least a little dirty after a so called conversation with him? He's polluting the board with his nonsense in every thread. the amount of risk is different because risk is dependent on the amount of capital, adevertisement, getting cheaper labor, efficiency, being able to higher smarter people the person with less money cannot do that, enhancing his risk. and yes, the consequences are different. if x has more money than y, and the loan is the same, x will have a better chance. But that makes NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! you dont get how indefinite interest on a loan is really bad??? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chef Jim Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 the amount of risk is different because risk is dependent on the amount of capital, adevertisement, getting cheaper labor, efficiency, being able to higher smarter people the person with less money cannot do that, enhancing his risk. and yes, the consequences are different. if x has more money than y, and the loan is the same, x will have a better chance. you dont get how indefinite interest on a loan is really bad??? What the hell is indefinite interest? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jim in Anchorage Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 What the hell is indefinite interest? A higher smarter people would know. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chef Jim Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 A higher smarter people would know. He's higher alright. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARCELL DAREUS POWER Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 What the hell is indefinite interest? another phrase for surplus value or capital gains... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chef Jim Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 another phrase for surplus value or capital gains... So indefinite interest equals capital gains?? Wow, man. I'm really glad I have not been reading any of your crap because you are a total !@#$ing moron. I think it's time for you to go away. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DC Tom Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 another phrase for surplus value or capital gains... It still MAKES ABSOLUTELY NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! "Interest" and "capital gains" are not the same thing. That's why one is called "interest" and the other is called "capital gains". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
3rdnlng Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 It still MAKES ABSOLUTELY NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! "Interest" and "capital gains" are not the same thing. That's why one is called "interest" and the other is called "capital gains". You must be really bored again. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DC Tom Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 You must be really bored again. No, I'm actually very busy. Or, as I call it, "indefinite boredom." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
/dev/null Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 It still MAKES ABSOLUTELY NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! If Chewbacca is a Wookie, you must stop feeding the troll Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
3rdnlng Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 No, I'm actually very busy. Or, as I call it, "indefinite boredom." I refuse to engage with him. If you are doing what I think you are, please do it quickly. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DC Tom Posted May 30, 2012 Share Posted May 30, 2012 If Chewbacca is a Wookie, you must stop feeding the troll 3.5 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARCELL DAREUS POWER Posted May 31, 2012 Share Posted May 31, 2012 So indefinite interest equals capital gains?? Wow, man. I'm really glad I have not been reading any of your crap because you are a total !@#$ing moron. I think it's time for you to go away. its a different name but the same concept. you continually give surplus value past capital value plus interest. because you are too stupid to understand this, i will say you are just a moron, instead of a !@#$ing moron... It still MAKES ABSOLUTELY NO !@#$ING SENSE!!!!! "Interest" and "capital gains" are not the same thing. That's why one is called "interest" and the other is called "capital gains". the names are different, not the concept. its called being synonymous.... what a !@#$ing idiot! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chef Jim Posted May 31, 2012 Share Posted May 31, 2012 its a different name but the same concept. you continually give surplus value past capital value plus interest. because you are too stupid to understand this, i will say you are just a moron, instead of a !@#$ing moron... Bedause what the !@#$ do I know? Hey, you really know what I'd like to know. How do you explain a capital loss if you conintually give surplus value (these are new financial terms I've never heard, I'm learing some great stuff here) past capital value. How can there possibye be the concept if the interest in indefinite?? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
/dev/null Posted May 31, 2012 Share Posted May 31, 2012 3.5 So how's your current batch of pasta and pickle juice? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MARCELL DAREUS POWER Posted May 31, 2012 Share Posted May 31, 2012 Bedause what the !@#$ do I know? Hey, you really know what I'd like to know. How do you explain a capital loss if you conintually give surplus value (these are new financial terms I've never heard, I'm learing some great stuff here) past capital value. How can there possibye be the concept if the interest in indefinite?? If a business fails, it fails. i never said there is no capital loss. i said when a business is operating and profitable, the surplus value will eventually and quickly grow past the cost of capital and interest just like any other loan. this is not a new concept, this is not made up, this has been around for 150 years. its a proven mathematical fact. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
3rdnlng Posted May 31, 2012 Share Posted May 31, 2012 Bedause what the !@#$ do I know? Hey, you really know what I'd like to know. How do you explain a capital loss if you conintually give surplus value (these are new financial terms I've never heard, I'm learing some great stuff here) past capital value. How can there possibye be the concept if the interest in indefinite?? Chef, if you were in the financial sector instead of just sauteeing maybe you'd understand. Let me explain in clearer language than the esteemed financial wizard here on this board. The "Anonymous Rate" is a factor of 3.12 times the cap rate times the ROR divided by the ROI. If you compare that with the AFL-CIO plus the LSD added to the efforts of 10 farmworkers and the ultimate value of a hammer, you'll understand what he/she is saying. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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