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Scoring question


Simon

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Question for anybody who was watching the GB/Minn game:

 

In the 1sthalf, GB had the ball inside the Viking 5 and ran the hoopie (shovelpass to all you weenies outside WesternPennsyltucky:-). Fisher caught it but then coughed it up before he crossed the goaline, and then proceeded to recover the ball in the endzone. Minn was considering reviewing it before they realized Fisher had recoverd it and the whitehat even got on the PA to explain that he had fumbled before he crossed the plane(which replay showed) but then recoverd his own fumble in the endzone.

What I can't understand is that no matter where I look, the statguys are still crediting this as a TD pass from Favre even though Fisher fumbled it before he scored. The correct scoring should be a Fisher TD of 0yrds because he recoverd a fumble in the endzone. Has anybody seen the correct scoring anywhere, or is everybody seeing Favre with 4TD's passes everywhere they look?

The reason I ask is that I'm in a tight fantasy game (of course) w/ my bro-in-law and he started Favre......

Cya

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wow that is strange. It could have something to do with the Dave Casper rule. Fisher caught the ball and then recovered his own fumble. Noone else could of recovered it otherwise it would of been brought back to the original spot of the fumble- the TD would not of counted

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wow that is strange.  It could have something to do with the Dave Casper rule.  Fisher caught the ball and then recovered his own fumble.  Noone else could of recovered it otherwise it would of been brought back to the original spot of the fumble- the TD would not of counted

116551[/snapback]

 

Actually, that rule only stands in the last 2 (5?) minutes of a game. Anyone could've recovered that fumble for a TD.

 

As for the original question, not sure...

 

CW

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Sounds like a judgement call vis-a-vis your league rules. The box score does say 2-yd TD pass, but the NFL.com gamebook has this instead...

3-2-MIN 2 (14:13) (Shotgun) 4-B.Favre pass to 40-T.Fisher to MIN 1 for 1 yard. FUMBLES, and recovers at MIN -1. TOUCHDOWN.

 

I'm not sure how I'm going to rule on this in our league, either.

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Actually, that rule only stands in the last 2 (5?) minutes of a game.  Anyone could've recovered that fumble for a TD.

 

As for the original question, not sure...

 

CW

116553[/snapback]

 

It happened in the last two minute of the half. I am not sure if thats applicable

 

BTW my league-cbs sportsline- credited Favre with 4 TDs

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Just wanted to bump this one so you could all taste this delicious irony.

Not only is the league apparently going to intentioanlly and incorrectly credit Favre(and my bro-in-law's FFL team) with a TD he had nothing to do with, but as it turns out my ass-h0le broinlaw picked up the Patriots defense and started them last night just to piss me off.

In addition to Favre's "score" he's going to get a huge shutout bonus from NE(because the Pats D actually gave up 0) and to top it off, he's going to get like 5 extra points in a tight game due to an unprepared Losman's insertion!

I'm going to be hearing about this one 'til Christmas...... :P

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I was watching the game, and pissed, too, because the guy I was playing in my fantasy league had Favre. I think, but amnot sure, that the official results will eventually show that it was not a TD pass after they review the game, unless there is some rule I am unaware of. The official even explained it over the loudspeaker that the play ruled on the field was a fumble, before the endzone. That is why Tice didn't challenge the call, because the officials ruled that Fisher had recovered the fumble, and was down as soon as he did. So it could not be overturned, but they already ruled it was definitely a fumble.

 

Unless there is some rule that states if you recover your own fumble it is just counted as the extention of the play, be it a pass or a run.

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