Repeatedly quoting Marbury v. Madison is a clever trick (and I mean that as a compliment), considering that there seems to be much debate and little agreement on the precise meaning of that 200 year old case. I'm not going to pretend I understand it completely, despite having read Marshall's opinion and a bunch of essays on it....but I don't suppose you can accurately, dispassionately, and unbiasedly explain it, can you?
And regardless...you make it sound as though over the past 200 years, the US has been ruled by judicial fiat that reduced the executive and legislative branches to a sham. Given that the opinion in Marbury v. Madison specifically found that the issuing of writs of mandamus by the Supreme Court exceeded its Constitutional authority, and that the powers that the court supposedly usurped (namely: the authority to limit the legislative and executive branches to their own Constitutionally granted authorities), are arguably implicit in its constitutional mandate even outside the Judicial Act of 1787, I would dispute your implication.