Original Byrd Man Posted October 1, 2008 Share Posted October 1, 2008 On an incomplete pass play the rams were guilty of a personal foul(they had the ball) and the Bills had the option of accepting the penalty or the play. Why not both? Now if the personal foul had been on Buffalo it would have been tacked on to the end of the play and the Rams would have been given a first down. Why the descreptancy? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Haven Moses Posted October 1, 2008 Share Posted October 1, 2008 The personal foul happened during the play. If it happened after the play, it would have been tacked on to the result. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts